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Chapter 30 / Surgical Radiology 183

What treatment provides

Tetanus toxoid (and tetanus immune

protection from tetanus

globulin, if one or no previous toxoid

infection?

with dirty wound)

What treatment provides

Chlordiazepoxide (Librium®), also give

protection from EtOH

Rally pack

withdrawal?

 

What treatment provides

Rally pack (a.k.a. banana bag because

protection from Wernicke’s

the IV is yellow with the vitamins in it);

encephalopathy?

pack includes thiamine, folate, and

 

magnesium

What is Wernicke’s

Condition resulting from thiamine

encephalopathy?

deficiency in patients with alcoholism,

 

causing a triad of symptoms; think “COA”:

 

1. Confusion

 

2. Ophthalmoplegia

 

3. Ataxia

What treatment decreases the risk of perioperative adrenal crisis in a patient on chronic steroids?

“Stress-dose” steroids: 100 mg hydrocortisone administered preoperatively, continued postoperatively q 8 hours, and then tapered off

C h a p t e r 30

Surgical Radiology

CHEST

 

 

 

What defines a technically

The film must be “RIPE”:

adequate CXR?

Rotation: Clavicular heads are

 

equidistant from the thoracic

 

spinous processes

 

Inspiration: Diaphragm is at or below

 

ribs 8–10 posteriorly and ribs 5–6

 

anteriorly

 

Penetration: Disk spaces are visible

 

but there is no bony detail of the

 

spine; bronchovascular structures

 

are seen through the heart

 

Exposure: Make sure all of the lung

 

fields are visible

184 Section I / Overview and Background Surgical Information

How should a CXR be read?

What CXR is better: P-A or A-P?

Classically, how much pleural fluid can the diaphragm hide on upright CXR?

How can CXR confirm that the last hole on a chest tube is in the pleural cavity?

How can a loculated pleural effusion be distinguished from a free-flowing pleural effusion?

How do you recognize a pneumothorax on CXR?

What x-ray should be obtained before feeding via a nasogastric or nasoduodenal tube?

What C-spine views are used to rule out bony injury?

Check the following:

Tubes and lines: Check placement

Patient data: Name, date, history number

Orientation: Up/down, left-right Technique: AP or PA, supine or

erect, decubitus

Trachea: Midline or deviated, caliber Lungs: CHF, mass

Pulmonary vessels: Artery or vein enlargement

Mediastinum: Aortic knob, nodes Hila: Masses, lymphadenopathy Heart: Transverse diameter should be

less than half the transthoracic diameter

Pleura: Effusion, thickening, pneumothorax

Bones: Fractures, lesions

Soft tissues: Periphery and below the diaphragm

P-A, less magnification of the heart (heart is closer to the x-ray plate)

It is said that the diaphragm can overshadow up to 500 cc

Last hole is through the radiopaque line on the chest tube; thus, look for the break in the radiopaque line to be in the rib cage

Ipsilateral decubitus CXR; if fluid is not loculated (or contained), it will layer out

Air without lung markings is seen outside the white pleural line—best seen in the apices on an upright CXR

Low CXR to ensure the tube is in the GI tract and not in the lung

CT scan

What is used to look for ligamentous C-spine injury?

What CXR findings may provide evidence of traumatic aortic injury?

How should a CT scan be read?

Chapter 30 / Surgical Radiology 185

Lateral flex and extension C-spine films, MRI

Widened mediastinum 8 cm (most common)

Apical pleural capping Loss of aortic knob

Inferior displacement of left main bronchus; NG tube displaced to the right, tracheal deviation, hemothorax

Cross section with the patient in supine position looking up from the feet

Anterior

Patient

Patient

Right

Left

 

Posterior

ABDOMEN

 

 

 

How should an abdominal

Check the following:

x-ray (AXR) be read?

Patient data: name, date, history

 

number

 

Orientation: up/down, left-right

 

Technique: A-P or P-A, supine or

 

erect, decubitus

 

Air: free air under diaphragm,

 

air-fluid levels

 

Gas dilatation (3, 6, 9 rule)

 

Borders: psoas shadow, preperitoneal

 

fat stripe

 

Mass: look for organomegaly, kidney

 

shadow

 

Stones/calcification: urinary, biliary,

 

fecalith

 

Stool

 

Tubes

 

Bones

 

Foreign bodies

186 Section I / Overview and Background Surgical Information

How can you tell the difference between a small bowel obstruction (SBO) and an ileus?

What is the significance of an air-fluid level?

In SBO there is a transition point (cut-off sign) between the distended proximal bowel and the distal bowel of normal caliber (may be gasless), whereas the bowel in ileus is diffusely distended

Seen in obstruction or ileus on an upright x-ray; intraluminal bowel diameter increases, allowing for separation of fluid and gas

Air

Air-fluid level

Fluid

What are the normal calibers of the small bowel, transverse colon, and cecum?

What is the “rule of 3s” for the small bowel?

How can the small and large bowel be distinguished on AXR?

Use the “3, 6, 9 rule”:

Small bowel 3 cm

Transverse colon 6 cm

Cecum 9 cm

Bowel wall should be 3 mm thick Bowel folds should be 3 mm thick Bowel diameter should be 3 cm wide

By the intraluminal folds: The small bowel plicae circulares are complete, whereas the plicae semilunares of the large bowel are only partially around the inner circumference of the lumen

Where does peritoneal fluid

Morison’s pouch (hepatorenal recess), the

accumulate in the supine

space between the anterior surface of the

position?

right kidney and the posterior surface of

 

the right lobe of the liver

What percentage of kidney

90%

stones are radiopaque?

 

 

Chapter 30 / Surgical Radiology 187

What percentage of

10%

gallstones are radiopaque?

 

What percentage of patients

5%

with acute appendicitis have

 

a radiopaque fecalith?

 

What are the radiographic

Fecalith; sentinel loops; scoliosis away

signs of appendicitis?

from the right because of pain; mass

 

effect (abscess); loss of psoas shadow;

 

loss of preperitoneal fat stripe; and, very

 

rarely, a small amount of free air, if

 

perforated

What does KUB stand for?

Kidneys, Ureters, and Bladder— commonly used term for a plain film AXR (abdominal flat plate)

What is the “parrot’s beak” or “bird’s beak” sign?

What is a “cut-off sign”?

Evidence of sigmoid volvulus on barium enema; evidence of achalasia on barium swallow

Seen in obstruction, bowel distention, and distended bowel that is “cut-off” from normal bowel

What are “sentinel loops”? Distention or air-fluid levels (or both) near a site of abdominal inflammation (e.g., seen in RLQ with appendicitis)

What is loss of the psoas shadow?

What is loss of the peritoneal fat stripe (a.k.a. preperitoneal fat stripe)?

What is “thumbprinting”?

What is pneumatosis intestinalis?

Loss of the clearly defined borders of the psoas muscle on AXR; loss signifies inflammation or ascites

Loss of the lateral peritoneal/preperitoneal fat interface; implies inflammation

Nonspecific colonic mucosal edema resembling thumb indentations on AXR

Gas within the intestinal wall (usually means dead gut) that can be seen in patients with congenital variant or chronic steroids

188 Section I / Overview and Background Surgical Information

What is free air?

Air free within the peritoneal cavity

 

(air or gas should be seen only within the

 

bowel or stomach); results from bowel or

 

stomach perforation

Diaphragm

Free air

What is the best position for the detection of FREE AIR (free intraperitoneal air)?

If you cannot get an upright CXR, what is the second best plain x-ray for free air?

How long after a laparotomy can there be free air on AXR?

What is Chilaiditi’s sign?

When should a postoperative abdominal/pelvic CT scan for a peritoneal abscess be performed?

Upright CXR—air below the right diaphragm

Left lateral decubitus, because it prevents confusion with gastric air bubble; with free air both sides of the bowel wall can be seen; can detect as little as 1 cc of air

Usually 7 days or less

Transverse colon over the liver simulating free air on x-ray

POD #7 or later, to give time for the abscess to form

What is the best test to

Ultrasound (U/S)

evaluate the biliary system

 

and gallbladder?

 

Chapter 30 / Surgical Radiology 189

What is the normal diameter 4 mm until age 40, then add 1 mm per of the common bile duct decade (e.g., 7 mm at age 70)

with gallbladder present?

What is the normal common 8 to 10 mm bile duct diameter after

removal of the gallbladder?

What U/S findings are associated with acute cholecystitis?

What type of kidney stone is not seen on AXR?

What medication should be given prophylactically to a patient with a true history of contrast allergy?

What is a C-C mammogram?

Gallstones, thickened gallbladder wall ( 3 mm), distended gallbladder ( 4 cm A-P), impacted stone in gallbladder neck, pericholecystic fluid

Uric acid (Think: Uric acid Unseen)

Methylprednisolone or dexamethasone; the patient should also receive nonionic contrast (associated with one fifth as many reactions as ionic contrast, the less expensive standard)

Cranio-Caudal mammogram, in which the breast is compressed top to bottom

190 Section I / Overview and Background Surgical Information

What is an MLO

MedioLateral Oblique mammogram, in

mammogram?

which the breast is compressed in a 45

 

angle from the axilla to the lower

 

sternum

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

What are the best studies to evaluate for a pulmonary embolus?

Spiral thoracic CT scan, V-Q scan, pulmonary angiogram (gold standard)

C h a p t e r 31

Anesthesia

Define the following terms:

 

Anesthesia

Loss of sensation/pain

Local anesthesia

Anesthesia of a small confined area of

 

the body (e.g., lidocaine for an elbow

 

laceration)

Epidural anesthesia

Anesthetic drugs/narcotics infused into

 

epidural space

Spinal anesthesia

Anesthetic agents injected into the thecal

 

sac

Regional anesthesia

Blocking of the sensory afferent nerve

 

fibers from a region of the body (e.g.,

 

radial nerve block)

 

 

Chapter 31 / Anesthesia 191

General anesthesia

Triad:

 

 

1. Unconsciousness/amnesia

 

2.

Analgesia

 

3.

Muscle relaxation

GET or GETA

General EndoTracheal Anesthesia

Give examples of the

 

 

following terms:

Lidocaine, bupivacaine (Marcaine®)

Local anesthetic

Regional anesthetic

Lidocaine, bupivacaine (Marcaine®)

General anesthesia

Isoflurane, enflurane, sevoflurane,

 

desflurane

Dissociative agent

Ketamine

What is cricoid pressure?

Manual pressure on cricoid cartilage

 

occluding the esophagus and thus

 

decreasing the chance of aspiration of

 

gastric contents during intubation

 

(a.k.a. Sellick’s maneuver)

What is “rapid-sequence”

1. Oxygenation and short-acting

anesthesia induction?

induction agent

 

2. Muscle relaxant

 

3. Cricoid pressure

 

4. Intubation

 

5. Inhalation anesthetic (rapid: boom,

 

boom, boom S to lower the risk of

 

aspiration during intubation)

Give examples of induction

Propofol, midazolam, sodium thiopental

agents.

 

 

What are contraindications

Patients with burns, neuromuscular

of the depolarizing agent

diseases/paraplegia, eye trauma, or

succinylcholine?

increased ICP

Why is succinylcholine

Depolarization can result in life-threatening

contraindicated in these

hyperkalemia; succinylcholine also

patients?

increases intraocular pressure

Why doesn’t lidocaine work

Lidocaine does not work in an acidic

in an abscess?

environment

192 Section I / Overview and Background Surgical Information

Why does lidocaine burn on injection and what can be done to decrease the burning sensation?

Why does some lidocaine come with epinephrine?

Lidocaine is acidic, which causes the burning; add sodium bicarbonate to decrease the burning sensation

Epinephrine vasoconstricts the small vessels, resulting in a decrease in bleeding and blood flow in the area; this prolongs retention of lidocaine and its effects

In what locations is lidocaine with epinephrine contraindicated?

What are the contraindications to nitrous oxide?

Fingers, toes, penis, etc., because of the possibility of ischemic injury/necrosis resulting from vasoconstriction

Nitrous oxide is poorly soluble in serum and thus expands into any air-filled body pockets; avoid in patients with middle ear occlusions, pneumothorax, small bowel obstruction, etc.

What is the feared side effect of bupivacaine (Marcaine®)?

What are the side effects of morphine?

Cardiac dysrhythmia after intravascular injection leading to fatal refractory dysrhythmia

Constipation, respiratory failure, hypotension (from histamine release), spasm of sphincter of Oddi (use Demerol® in pancreatitis and biliary surgery), decreased cough reflex

What are the side effects of meperidine?

Limit to the duration of Demerol® postoperatively?

What medication is a contraindication to Demerol®?

Similar to those of morphine but causes less sphincteric spasm and can cause tachycardia and seizures

Build up of the metabolites (normeperidine)

Monoamine oxidase inhibitor

What metabolite of Demerol® Normeperidine breakdown causes side effects

(e.g., seizures)?

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